AILET PG Mock Tests 2022

AILET PG Mock Tests 2022 | NLUD LLM Mock

1. A who deals only in coconut oil, enters into an agreement with B to sell 50 tons of oil. The agreement is

enforceable by law

void due to uncertainty

Voidable

NOTA

2. B is wife of A. A during lifetime of B and with her consent an agreement with C to marry her (c). The agreement is

Void

Voidable

Valid

NOTA

3. The Captain of B’s ship signs of bill of lading without received on board the goods mentioned therein, as between B and purchased consignor is concerned the bill of lading are

Void

Voidable

Enforceable

NOTA

4. ‘A’ contracts with ‘B’ to grow a crop of indigo on ‘A’s land and to deliver it to ‘B’ at a fixed rate and ‘C’ guarantees A’s performance of this contract ‘B’ diverts a stream of water which is necessary for irrigation of A’s land and thereby prevents him from raising the indigo

C is liable on his guarantee

C is no longer liable on his guarantee

Depends

NOTA

5. ‘A’ gives a guarantee to ‘C’ for goods to be supplied by ‘C’ to ‘B’. ‘C’ supplies goods to ‘B’ and afterwards ‘B’ becomes embarrassed and contract with his creditors (including C) to assign to them his property in consideration of their releasing him from their demands. Here

‘B’ is released from his debt by the contract with ‘C’ and ‘A’ is discharged from his surety-ship

‘B’ is released from his debt by the contract with ‘C’ but ‘A’ is not discharged from his surety-ship

‘B’ is not released from his debt by the contract with ‘C’ but ‘A’ is discharged from his surety-ship

NOTA

6. Which one of the following is correct?

All agreement are contract one they have been made between the parties from a consideration

All agreements are contract once they have been made between the parties with their free consent

All agreements are contract once they have been made between the competent parties

All agreements are contract if they have been made by the free consent of parties competent to contract for lawful consideration and lawful object and not expressly declared by law to be void

7. A, who is B’s ‘mukhar’, promises to exercise his influence, as such, with B in favour of C, and C promises to pay Rs. 20,000 to A. The agreement is

Voidable because it is immoral

Void because it is immoral

opposed to public policy

Void because consideration is unlawful

8. Assertion (A): The UPSC must be consulted as regards the reservation of posts of Backward of Classes, ST and SC

Reason (R): The functions of the UPSC are only advisory and the Govt need not act upon the advice of the Commission in any case.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

9. Which one of the following is the mandatory minimum requirement for a functional federation ?

States should be represented in the Upper House

Judicial Review

Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments National and State, so as to ensure the independence of the Governments within their respective spheres

Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Government, National and State, so as to ensure the independent but coordinated exercise of independent but coordinated exercise of powers of the Governments

10. Make the correct answer:-

The Penal Code applies to every person in any part of India for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the code

The code applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India without and beyond India

Every Act Committed outside India which if committed in India, would be punishable under thee Code

All of the above

11. If a person who is citizen of India commits any offence out of India he

Can’t be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India

Can be prosecuted in the Country where the offence was committed

can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be found

Can’t be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country where the crime was committed

12. Actus Reus is defined as ‘such result of human conduct as the law seeks to prevent”. In the light of this observation which of the following statements in incorrect:-

Actus Reus means of omission or commission which is called conduct

Actus reus means prohibited by law

Actus reus means voluntary as involuntary human action

13. “One is said to have acted intentionally when it can be granted from his act that he could foresee the consequences for certainty and and desired them.”

Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab

Iinder Singh v. State of Pepsu

Brij Bhusan v. State

Venkalu State of Hyderabad

14. Give correct response:

The word ‘attempt’ clearly conveys the idea that if attempt succeeded, the offence would have been committed

Attempt is the direct movement towards the commission of an offence after preparation has been made

If actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime of not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit crime

All acts towards committing a misdemeanor are not indictable. Acts remotely leading towards commission of offences are not to be considered as attempts to commit but acts immediately connected with it are

15. Preparation and attempt are two stages of the commission of a crime. Preparation is not punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there

Is no nexus between preparation and attempt

can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence

is absence of intention

is a absence of attempt

16. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court observed: ‘There is a thin line between the preparation for and an attempt an attempt to commit an offence’:-

State of Maharashtra v. Mohd. Yakub

Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar

Malklat Singh v. State of Punjab

Om Prakash v. State of Punjab

17. State in which of the following cases, P is guilty of attempting to commit the offence:

P, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Q, sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Q, As the servant reaches stamp shop, he is arrested

P shoots at Q whose back is towards him. The attempt fails as Q is beyond the range of gun

P pours half a pint of substance from a bottle marked ‘poison’ into the whisky of Q. Q is not aware. It turns out that bottle did not contain any poison

P administers some noxious substance to woman so that an abortion results. The woman was pregnant

18. Which of the following is an instance of criminal attempt?

A procures color with an intent to make false coins

A is in possession of some obscene photographs and he thought of publishing them

A, with an intent to Kill B, administer sugar thinking it to be poison-powder.

NOTA

19. Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft

Reason (R):

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is false but R is true

A is true but R is false

20. Which one of the following combinations is not correctly matched?

a. Mehboob Shah v. Emperor-Common Object

b. State of Maharashtra v. M.H. George- Mens Rea

c. Director Public Prosecutor v. Beard- Defence of Insanity

d. P. Rathiman v. UOI- Dowry Death

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a, b, and d

b, c, and d

a, c, and d

NOTA

21. Go through the following statements and mark the correct one:

Tort and Crime are neither totally different nor totally similar
Murder is fully an offence
Trespass without intention is only a tort

Statement 1 and 2 are true

Statements 2 and 3 are true

All statements are true

All statements are false

22. The source of”we the people” in the preamble is a

United States

United Kingdom

United Nations

None of the above

23. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held at the union government cannot dismiss a duly elected state government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha?

S R Bommai vs Union of India

Karunanidhi ve Union of India

Jayalalitha v. State

NOTA

24. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court explained the difference between locus standi and right to impalement?

Janaki vs Neelakanda lyer

asjee vs Tirupati Devastanam

UP Awas Evam Vikas Parishad vs Gyan Devi

None of the above

25. Foreign sovereign ships sailing/anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are:

subject to the law of the flag state;

subject to the law of the coastal state;

subject to the law of both states.

All of the above

26. Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a period of

10 years

7 years

5 years

2 years

27. Culvo Clause means

A state can intervene on behalf of its nationals

A state can’t intervene on behalf of its nationals

An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own state

None of these

28. A landlocked state is

Surrounded by water from all sides

Surrounded by enemy states from all sides

Surrounded by land from all sides

NOTA

29. The principle of rebus sie steatibus means

A state cannot use force

There is no crime without a law

Fundamental change of circumstances

None of these

30. The Continuity of states us International Legal Persons is:

Affected by change of government

Not affected by change of government

Depends of the recognition of new government

None of these

31. Rights of hand-locked states are governed by

Rules of customary international law

Convention on the Law of Sea

Mutual Consent

None of these

32. Who proposed the ‘Pure Theory of Law’ i.e. a theory which is free from social, historical, political, psychological, etc., influences:

Sir Henry Maine

Salmond

Hans Kelsen

None of the above

33. Who wrote that “The only right which a man can posses is the right always to do his duty”?

Duguit

Hart

Austin

Bentham

34. The liability in which the sole intention of the law is to enforce the plaintiff’s right and not to punish the wrong-doer is known as:

Constructive liability

Penal liability

Equitable liability

Remedial liability

35. Systematic arrangement of rules in a single document concerning a particular subject in a way as to avoid inconsistency and overlapping. The process is known as .

Legislation

Codification

Prescription

Administration

36. A libel upon a dead man shall be a punishment to defend the right of:

The dead man

Dead man’s property

Descendants of dead man

All of the above

37. The Water (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act, 1974 has been enacted by the legislature under the Constitution India under:

Article 32

Article 226

Article 252

Article 253

38. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the governmental direction to close down the lime-stone mining operations and quarrying permanently, holding it the duty of the lessee to protest and safeguard the right of the people to live in a healthy environment with minimal disturbance of ecological balance?

All India Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of india

Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra V. State of Uttar Pradesh

Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India

M.C. Mehta v. Union of India.

39. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason and give the correct answer by using code given below:
Assertion (A): It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and a ordinated programme to meet ts obligation of Sustainable Development.
Reason (R): Adherence to the power of Sustainable Development is no Constitutional requirement.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of A

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is correct but (R) is wrong

is wrong but (R) is corect.

40. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Polluter pays principle means polluters should internalise the costs of their pollution, control it at its source, and pay for its effects, including remedial or cleanup Costs, rather than forcing other states or future generations to bear such costs.
Reasons (R): Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v. Union of India decided so.
Codes:

(A) is right but (R) is wrong

Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are wrong

Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).

41. Which ground “To claim Pre – Emption” was nullified by the Supreme Court in the case “ Razzaque Bagwan v. Ibrahim Haji Mohd. Hussain” ?

Co sharers

Participators

Owners of Adjoining land

NOTA

42. In which ground of Divorce, wife has the pay a consideration in order to get a divorce from her husband?

Khula

Mubarat

Delegated divorce

Both A and B

43. If the Muta Marriage is not consummated, than the wife us entitled to?

Full dower

Half dower

No dower

Only maintenance

44. If the term of the years of the assignment is not mentioned then it is assigned…..-years under the copyright Act.

3 years

5 years

2 years

6 months

45. The patent law gives an exclusive right to the patent to gain …………. out of his invention.

Commercial Benefits

Personal Benefits

reputation

all the above

46. In Musical work …. is the first owner of the work.

Producer

Composer

Artist

Author

47. If the translation of the literary work is in a language not in general use in developed countries such application may be made after a period of……

5 years

З years

2 years

1 year

48. Assertion (A): Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors
Reason (R): Directors are trustees for the company and not for the individual shareholders.
Codes:

(A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A)

(A) and (R) are true and (R) is an correct explanation for (A)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(R) is true but (A) is false

49. Various cases have established that the rule in the case of “Royal British Bank v.Turquand did not operate in a completely in restricted manner.
which one of the following statements is Incorrect

This rule only protected “outsiders”, that is persons dealing ‘externally’ with the company

Actual notice of the failure to comply with the internal procedures precluded reliance upon the rule

An outsider could not rely upon this rule where the nature of the transaction is suspicious

If the transaction in question could not in the circumstance have been validly entered into by the company, even then the third party could enforce the rule

50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below, write the correct answer:
Assertion (A): The creditors of a limited company are particularly happy due to doctrine of indoor management, it would be happier
still if the company could escape liability by denying the authority of the officials to act on its behalf.

Reason (R): Because L.C.B. Gower has written so.
Codes:

Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are wrong

(A) is right, (R) is wrong

(R) is right, (A) is wrong

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